I've been learning about ZFC set theory on my own for a moment now, and since it's expressed in the language of first order logic I thought I might as well look into that and language theory too. But when I did I immediately ran into a confusion: the notion of a formal language requires the notion of an alphabet, which is understood to be a set of symbols.
So if the notion of a language requires the previous notion of a set, then how can any theory that tries to formalise the notion of sets come after a theory of languages? To me this looks like a catch-22...
Basically what I'm asking is if there is any way to make a theory of formal languages that doesn't requires the notion of sets, of is somehow the fact that languages imply the previous notion of sets is not a problem for set theory.
Can someone with a deeper and more educated understanding of all this enlighten me? Is there some crucial subtelty I'm missing? Or is there no satisfactory answer to this question yet? My head is starting to run in circles...