Hi i'm a maths undergrad currently writing an essay on Universal algebra for my second year project.
I'm primarily using "A Course in Universal Algebra" by Burris and Sankappanavar. I can't seem to understand the proof of lemma 11.8 from chapter 2. The lemma essentially covers the $\Leftarrow$ part of the proof of Birkhoff's theorem (which is stated right below the lemma).
I'm struggling to understand why a second infinite set of variables Y is introduced, as the set X of variables is already infinite.
If it is because we need an infinite set of variables where we can choose any cardinality so that it is always larger or equal to the algebra A, as per the requirements of 10.11. Then why do we need an infinite set X?
Thank you.
Lemma 11.8 If V is a variety and X is an infinite set of variables, then $V=M(Id_V(X) )$
Proof: Let
$$V′ = M(IdV (X))$$.
Clearly $V′$ is a variety by 11.3, $V′ ⊇ V$, and
$$Id_V ′(X) = Id_V (X)$$
So by 11.4,
$$\mathbf{F}_V ′(\overline{X}) = \mathbf{F}_V(\overline{X})$$
Now given any infinite set of variables Y, we have by 11.6
$$Id_{V′}(Y) = Id_{\mathbf{F}_{V′(X)}}(\overline{Y}) = Id_{\mathbf{F}_{V(X)}}
(\overline{Y}) = Id_V(Y).$$
Thus again by 11.4,
$$θ_{V′}(Y) = θ_{V}(Y)$$
hence
$$\mathbf{F}_{V′}(\overline{Y}) = \mathbf{F}_{V}(\overline{Y})$$
Now for $\mathbf{A}∈ V'$ we have (by 10.11), for suitable infinite Y,
$$\mathbf{A} ∈ H(\mathbf{F}_{V′}(\overline{Y}));$$
hence
$$\mathbf{A} ∈ H(\mathbf{F}_V(\overline{Y}))$$
so $A ∈ V$ ; hence $V′ ⊆ V$, and thus $V′ = V$.