I am trying to solve this exercise in Artin.
(a) Define the greatest common divisor of a set $\{a_1, \ldots, a_n\}$ of $n$ integers. Prove that it exists, and that it is an integer combination of $a_1, \ldots, a_n$.
(b) Prove that if the greatest common divisor of $\{a_1, \ldots, a_n\}$ is $d$, then greatest common divisor of $\{a_1/d, \ldots, a_n/d\}$ is $1$.
I am having difficulty getting started, and am really just looking for a hint and some clarifications on interpretation. My thoughts on this at the moment are:
1) My first instinct is to induct on $n$. I don't think we can define the $\gcd$ of an empty set or of a single element, so the base case would would have to be $n = 2$.
2) It doesn't seem that I have any information on these integers. Can we define the $\gcd$ of $0$ or negative integers? Surely the $\gcd$ itself is greaeter than or equal to $1$.
3) I cannot figure out how to 'prove' existence. If we have two integers, the $\gcd$ "exists by definition." If the integers are relatively prime, their $\gcd$ is $1$. If not, there exists some integer $d > 1$ that divides both. There's certainly a finite number of such elements because the distance between any two integers is finite, so taking the maximum gives the $\gcd$.
4) The $n \implies n + 1$ inductive step seems to just be invoking this same $n = 2$ argument I just made.