Is $(M^e \pmod n)^d \pmod n = M^{ed} \pmod n$ ?
If this is true, how can I prove that?
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4Yes, it is true. It is a consequence of the fact that $$ (M_1 \bmod n) (M_2 \bmod n)\cdots (M_k \bmod n) = (M_1M_2 \cdots M_k) \bmod n. $$ – Ben Grossmann Mar 15 '20 at 22:36
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thank you very much – Gouz Mar 15 '20 at 22:43