From a linguistic standpoint, "if and only if" kinda sounds like an angry mother overexaggerating the "if", but mathematically this is not the case. Of course, this is completely irrelevant, I'm just trying to be funny.
I was told that "only if" is different from "if and only if". Instead of opening a Mathematical Logic book and looking through the definitions and proofs, I decided to take the easy route and ask here. If $p$ holds "only if" $q$ holds, shouldn't that mean that if $p$ holds then $q$ also holds, thus making "only if" the same as "if and only if"? Are these the exact same thing but we just ended up using "if and only if" predominantly?