I asked a similar question in high school and people started laughing as they thought like it's trivial.
We only learn to memories the values cosine function but not even in college we're we taught how exactly it works.
Trig functions as far as I was taught in college were defined as infinite series. But if I plugged pi in that infinite series I see no reason why it would converge to - 1 for the cosine function trig series or why that series definition would be equivalent to the geometric one.
The relation to the geometric definition is not the central point but if you will talk about it I would appreciate AVOIDING COORDINATES IN YOUR ANSWERS AND COMMENTS, I find them extremely detrimental to conceptual reasoning.
I think it probably the easisent explanation lies in complex numbers, but I don't know if that would be satisfactory.