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Consider any set $S$ which is not finite. Is it true that $S \times \mathbb{Z}$ has the same cardinality as $S$?

I thought the answer is "yes" and I thought it would be a trivial problem. But as I think about it, I have a nagging feeling it requires something like the Axiom of Choice and now, I'm not even sure the answer is "yes."

One cursory idea I had was to consider an injection of $\{s\} \times \mathbb{Z} \to S$ for each fixed $s \in S$. Somehow, if we can patch these together to form another injection $S \times \mathbb{Z}$, we would be done.

inkievoyd
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