You mentioned that you can show $\ell^p\subset \ell^q$ for $p<q$. This means that you have no problem showing that there is a $C>0$ such that
$$\tag{1}
\lVert x\rVert_{\ell^q}\le C\lVert x\rVert_{\ell^p}, \qquad \forall x\in \ell^p.$$
Now you need to prove that, indeed, the constant $C$ can be taken to be $1$. This is a classical case in which you can use the tensor power trick, as Terry Tao calls it.
WARNING. What follows is not the simplest way of proving what you want. But I think that it is an interesting application of a not so well-known trick.
For $x\in \ell^p$, define the tensor power of $x$ with itself to be the matrix
$$
x\otimes x := \begin{bmatrix} x_1^2 & x_1x_2 & x_1x_3 & \ldots \\ x_1x_2 & x_2^2 & x_2x_3 & \ldots \\
x_3x_1 & x_3x_2 & x_3^2 & \ldots\\
\ldots & \ldots & \ldots & \ldots \end{bmatrix}.$$
Define the $\ell^p$ norm of a matrix as
$$
\lVert A\rVert_{\ell^p}:= \left(\sum_{ij} |a_{ij}|^p\right)^\frac1p,\quad \text{ where }A=\begin{bmatrix} a_{ij}\end{bmatrix}_{i, j},$$
and define the $\ell^q$ norm in the obvious way.
There are now two key observations to be made.
The first key observation is that
$$\tag{i}
\lVert x\otimes x\rVert_{\ell^p}=\lVert x\rVert_{\ell^p}^2\quad \text{ and }\quad \lVert x\otimes x\rVert_{\ell^q}=\lVert x\rVert_{\ell^q}^2.$$
The second key observation is that, for any matrix $A$,
$$\tag{ii}
\lVert A\rVert_{\ell^q}\le C\lVert A\rVert_{\ell^p}, $$
where $C$ is the same constant that appears in (1).
Now we can conclude our proof that $C$ can be $1$. Let us apply (ii) with $x\otimes x$ in place of $A$. By (i),
$$
\lVert x\rVert_{\ell^q}\le C^{1/2} \lVert x\rVert_{\ell^p},$$
which means that (1) still holds if $C$ is replaced by its square root. Iterating, we see that (1) still holds if $C$ is replaced by $C^{\tfrac1{2^n}}$ for any $n\in\mathbb N$. Letting $n\to \infty$ we conclude that $C$ can be replaced by
$$
\lim_{n\to \infty} C^{\tfrac{1}{2^n}}=1.\quad \Box$$