Here's a nice fact: roughly speaking, the Laplace operator gives you the difference between the value of a function at a point and the average value at "neighboring" points.
More precisely, in $\mathbb{R}^n$ let $S_r(x)$ be the $(n-1)$-dimensional sphere of radius $r$ centered at the point $x$, let $V_r$ be the volume of this sphere, and let $d\sigma$ be the volume element on this sphere. Then at every point $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$
$$ \lim_{r \rightarrow 0} \frac{\int_{S_r(x)} f d\sigma}{V_r} - f(x) = \frac{r^2}{2n} \Delta f(x) + \bar{o}(r^2) $$
for all $C^2$ functions $f$ on $\mathbb{R}^2$. So far, however, I've been unable to prove this fact. In the book I'm following (Grigor'yan, Heat Kernel and Analysis on Manifolds) the only theorem that's really been introduced so far is one of Green's identities:
$$ \langle u, \Delta v \rangle = \langle \nabla u, \nabla v \rangle, $$
where at least one of $u,v$ is compactly supported and $\langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle$ denotes the inner product over $\mathbb{R}^n$. So, it seemed natural to consider any compactly-supported test function $g \in C^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$, in which case the formula above would look something like
$$ \frac{\int_{S_r(x)}\langle f, g \rangle d\sigma}{V_r} - \langle f, g \rangle = \frac{r^2}{2n} \langle \nabla f, \nabla g \rangle + \langle g + \bar{o}(r^2) \rangle. $$
Not sure where to take it from here, though (or even if this is the right direction!). Any hints/tricks are much appreciated. (For the record, I am not solving this problem as a homework exercise.)
Finally, a more minor question: what does the bar signify in $\bar{o}(r^2)$?
Thanks!