I am trying to prove that if $R$ is a field, then its field of fractions is simply itself.
What would be the isomorphism that I would set up for this problem?
Any hints would be appreciated.

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1Take $\phi(a/b)=ab^{-1}$ – Feb 17 '20 at 02:08
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Okay I'll try that out. Thanks! – MATH-LORD Feb 17 '20 at 02:08
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I proved that $\phi$ was a homomorphism, and I'm stuck as to where to go from here. – MATH-LORD Feb 17 '20 at 02:19
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1$\phi$ is an isomorphism. – Feb 17 '20 at 02:21
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2Follows immediately from its universal mapping property. – Bill Dubuque Feb 17 '20 at 02:29
1 Answers
In this answer, I'll be assuming that all rings have a multiplicative identity, and that if $\phi:R\to S$ is a ring homomorphism, then $\phi(1_R)=1_S$
Let $\text{Frac}(R)$ denote the field of fractions for an integral domain $R$. Then $\text{Frac}(R)$ satisfies the following property: for any field $K$ and any injective ring homomorphism $h:R\to K$, there is a unique ring homomorphism $H:\text{Frac}(R)\to K$ that extends $h$.
Let $F$ be a field, and let $h:F\to F$ be the identity map. Then $h$ is an injective ring homomorphism from $F$ to a field. Hence it can be extended to ring homomorphism $H:\text{Frac}(F)\to F$. Note that $H$ is surjective since it extends $h$ which is surjective. Also $H$ is injective since $H$ is a ring homomorphism whose domain is a field. It follows that $H:\text{Frac}(F)\to F$ is an isomorphism.

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How does this allow me to conclude that the field of fractions is $R$ itself? Maybe there's something that I'm missing. – MATH-LORD Feb 17 '20 at 02:27
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