I tried to find a $b_n$ for which $a_n \le b_n$ so I did:
$$\frac{3n^2+2n}{2^n} \le \frac{1}{2^n} \Leftrightarrow \\ 3n^2+2n-1 \le 0 \Leftrightarrow \\ (n+1)(3n-1) \le 0 \Leftrightarrow \\ n \le -1 \lor n \le 1/3$$
Since $b_n = (\frac{1}{2})^n$ converges, so does $a_n$ but only for $\{ n: -1 \le n \le 1/3, n \in\mathbb{N}\}$.
Is this correct? I wrote the set of values for n like that because what I understand is that n has to be a natural number that starts at 1 (or whatever number is given which in this case was one, I don't know how to write with the sum symbol). Still the answer doesn't make a whole lot of sense to me. If n has to be a natural number doesn't that set become empty?