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yesterday I asked this question Does consistency imply completeness? and I finally understand the meaning of complete theory, which is, a theory is complete if all the well formed sentences that can be built from the terms of the axiomatic system can be either proved or disproved. Now, since infinite sentences can be built, how can you know if ALL of them can be proved or disproved?

Robert
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    "since infinite sentences can be built," pet peeve: No, every sentence is finite - there are no infinite sentences. You meant infinitely many sentences... – David C. Ullrich Feb 15 '20 at 12:28
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    Since there are infinitely many differentiable functions, how can we know that they ALL are continuous? – David C. Ullrich Feb 15 '20 at 12:28
  • Some weak enough theories , as the Presburg arithmetic , are known to be both consistent and complete. Goedel showed that no theory at least as strong as PA can be both consistent and complete. So, PA (and also ZFC) must be incomplete, if we assume that they are consistent. – Peter Feb 15 '20 at 12:56
  • @ullrich ooh okay I got it – Robert Feb 15 '20 at 14:07
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    There are general results/techniques used to prove that, if certain conditions are satisfied, then the theory is complete (Los-Vaught test, quantifier elimination). See technical literature, like e.g. Enderton's textbook. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Feb 15 '20 at 20:46
  • As an example, here is a sketch of the (and links to the fully detailed) proof that Presburger arithmetic is complete. – Natalie Clarius Feb 15 '20 at 23:55
  • @DavidC.Ullrich A sentence though is a string of characters following formation rules. Thus, infinitely many sentences cannot get built. Or in other words, potentially infinitely many sentences could get built were an infinite amount of space and relevant resources to exist, but an actual infinity of sentences can't get built. – Doug Spoonwood Feb 16 '20 at 01:07
  • @Peter Don't Goedel's "proofs" rely on Goedel numbering? But Goedel numbering has a problem itself. A number is a constant. Goedel numbers assign numbers to symbols for variables. Thus, Goedel numbering collapses the distinction between numbers and variables, and his "theorems" might not hold because of that. – Doug Spoonwood Feb 16 '20 at 01:10
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    @DougSpoonwood The notion of what can or cannot get built is not a mathemtaical concept. The set of wffs is infinite. – David C. Ullrich Feb 16 '20 at 10:26
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    @DougSpoonwood What you say about Godel numbering is simply nonsense, btw. Our names are strings. We are not strings, we are persons. Using our names does not "collapse the distinction between" persons and strings. – David C. Ullrich Feb 16 '20 at 10:43
  • @DavidC.Ullrich Numbers are constants. Goedel "numbers" are not constants, since something like '17' replaces a propositional variable like 'x'. Goedel numbers are thus not natural numbers. – Doug Spoonwood Feb 16 '20 at 16:59
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    @DougSpoonwood Nonsense. Gibberish. Honest. – David C. Ullrich Feb 16 '20 at 18:26
  • @DavidC.Ullrich Let's suppose that 17 gets assigned to the symbol 'p' via Goedel numbering. 17, is or represents, a constant. What is the truth value of 17? Does it have a truth value of true? Does it have a truth value of false? It has to have one and only one truth value since 17 is a constant. – Doug Spoonwood Feb 16 '20 at 19:20
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    @DougSpoonwood It sounds like you're confused about what a function is. Saying the Goedel number of p is 17 does not say p = 17. It simply says $g(p)=17$. It doesn't make 17 into a formula - the question of the truth value of 17 doesn't come up. – David C. Ullrich Feb 16 '20 at 19:48
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    @DougSpoonwood You should really take your revolutionary ideas to sci.math, on usenet (you can get there via Google Groups). – David C. Ullrich Feb 16 '20 at 21:40
  • To avoid confusion for the OP, I'm going to chime in and observe that David Ullrich is indeed correct (Doug Spoonwood's comments reflect a misunderstanding of the topic); and since this particular dead horse has been beaten before, that's all I'll say here. – Noah Schweber Feb 19 '20 at 16:52
  • @NoahSchweber Before you said "More to the point, you have to separate the string 'a' - which is a constant - from what the string means - which is its sense as a variable." But Godel numbering makes such impossible! Since any Godel number is a constant and no number has a sense as a variable, no Godel number has a sense as a variable. – Doug Spoonwood Mar 06 '20 at 21:27

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since infinite[ly many] sentences can be built, how can you know if ALL of them can be proved or disproved?

Well, let me answer your question with some other questions:

  • Since infinitely many natural numbers exist, how can you know that ALL of them can be factored into primes?

  • Since infinitely many rational numbers exist, how can you know that ALL of them square to something other than $2$?

  • Since there are infinitely many proofs in first-order Peano arithmetic, how can you know that ALL of them fail to prove the Godel sentence for first-order Peano arithmetic?

The point is that there's nothing special about logic here - math is all about$^1$ proving statements applicable to domains too large for us to check each instance. The topic makes the situation seem more mysterious, but remember: mathematical logic is part of mathematics, and the tools we use to prove results in logic are not fundamentally different from the tools we use to prove results in (say) number theory.

$^1$OK, saying that math is "all about" something is inherently troublesome, but I'd say this is pretty close to accurate as far as such things go - especially since I've phrased things to be somewhat compatible with ultrafinitist stances. For a historical example, Zermelo's Thesis I constitutes a strong version of this claim (one which I largely agree with, FWIW).


A bit more specifically, here are some examples of proofs of completeness of theories.

  • First, a pretty trivial one: if $\mathcal{A}$ is any structure, then $Th(\mathcal{A})=\{\varphi:\mathcal{A}\models\varphi\}$ is complete. For suppose $\varphi\not\in Th(\mathcal{A})$. Then by definition of $\models$, we have $\mathcal{A}\models\neg\varphi$, so $\neg\varphi\in\mathcal{A}$.

  • A bit more interesting is the proof that the theory consisting of all sentences true in every dense linear order without endpoints is complete. To prove this, we show that any two dense linear orders without endpoints (DLOs for short) are elementarily equivalent (= satisfy the same first-order sentences). By downward Lowenheim-Skolem we know that every DLO is elementarily equivalent to a countable one. But by a back-and-forth argument any two countable DLOs are isomorphic (so a fortiori elementarily equivalent).

  • A much more interesting situation (in particular, the isomorphism trick from the previous bulletpoint doesn't work) is the proof that Presburger arithmetic is complete. I've given a very brief summary of it here; it boils down to some logical tricks and a proof by induction (on formula complexity). The induction argument is used to show that a certain theory (not Presburger arithmetic, but a conservative extension) is complete for quantifier-free sentences, and the logical tricks amount to both producing this theory and showing how that result implies completeness of Presburger arithmetic. So effectively the proof proceeds by reducing the "big" infinitary claim we're trying to show (full completeness of Presburger arithmetic) to a "small" infinitary claim (quantifier-free completeness of a related theory) which is easier to prove (by a more-or-less straightforward induction argument).

Noah Schweber
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