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Theorem: Multiplicative inverse of x mod m is y with x*y = 1(mod m).

Example: For 4 modulo 7 inverse is 2: 2*4 = 8 = 1(mod 7).

Why 1(mod 7) is 8? I thought mod(1,7) = 1

J. W. Tanner
  • 60,406

1 Answers1

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There are two notions of mod, which are related but distinct.

One is a binary operation, which gives a result of two numbers, and is often used in computer science:

$\mod(a,b)$ is the remainder when $a$ is divided by $b$.

In that context, $\mod(1,7)=\color{blue}1$ because $1=0\times7+\color{blue}1.$

The other is a relation, often used in mathematics:

$a\equiv b\pmod n$ means $n$ divides $a-b$.

In that context, $1\equiv8\pmod7$, because $7\mid1-8$.

J. W. Tanner
  • 60,406