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I've just started looking at ring theory and I am having trouble working with invertible elements.

In my notes we have been told that $R^\times$ is the set of all the invertible elements of $R$, and it is called the group of units of $R$. The set $R^\times$ of invertible elements of $R$ is a multiplicative group for the multiplication operation of $R$.

I have to work with the cartesian product $S:= R\times R$ with $R$ a commutative ring. Where $(a,b)(c,d) = (ac-db, ad+bc)$ and I am trying to show $(a,b)∈ S^\times$ iff $(a,-b)∈ S^\times$. I'm guessing we define $S^\times$ the same way as we define $R^\times$? We also know that $S$ has unit $(1,0)$.

Should I proceed by showing $(a,b)(a,-b)=(1,0)=(a,-b)(a,b)$? I had seen online that for invertible elements $uv=1=vu$.

Thank you!

Bill Dubuque
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    I've made edits to include markdown. In the future you could do the same when you write, it's not hard, and it increases the readability and prospects for your question. You can see the changes I made by clicking the edit timestamp. – rschwieb Feb 07 '20 at 12:38
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    Here's a tutorial and reference for typesetting math on this site. – joriki Feb 07 '20 at 12:39
  • ok thank you I will try this with future questions – 12589user Feb 07 '20 at 12:40
  • Try to express the inverse of $(a,b)$ more explicitly and use that to find an inverse of $(a,-b)$. – Matthias Feb 07 '20 at 12:42

2 Answers2

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Hint $ $ It's simple viewed as $\,S \cong R[x]/(x^2\!+1) = R[i]\,$ where $\,i := [x] = x + (x^2\!+\!1)R[x]$

$$\begin{align}{\rm where}\ \ \ \ (a,\ b)*(c,\ d) &\,=\, (ac\!-\!bd,\ \ \ \, ad\!+\!bc)\\[.2em] \to\ \ (a\!+\!bi)(c\!+\!di) &\,=\, \ \, ac\!-\!bd\! +\! (ad\!+\!bc)\,i \end{align}\qquad\qquad$$

generalizing the familiar case: $\,\Bbb R[x]/(x^2\!+1) = \Bbb R[i]\cong \Bbb C\ $ when $\ R = \Bbb R$

Then, as in any algebraic extension, existence of inverses in $R$ lifts to $R[i]$ by rationalizing ("real-izing") the denominator, which is a prototypical instance of the method of simpler multiples, i.e. we multiply $\,\alpha\in R[i]\,$ by its conjugate(s) to obtain its (simpler multiple) norm $\,r\in R,\,$ which has the simplification effect of reducing $\color{#c00}{\rm division\ by\ \alpha}\in R[i]$ to simpler $\color{#0a0}{\rm division\ by\ } r\in R,\,$ i.e.

$\displaystyle 0\ne\alpha\in R[i]\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ 0\ne\alpha\bar\alpha = r\in R\ \ \Rightarrow\!\!\! \underbrace{\color{#c00}{\frac{1}\alpha}\, =\, \frac{1\ \bar\alpha}{\alpha\:\bar\alpha}\, =\, \color{#0a0}{\frac{\bar\alpha}r}\in R[i]}_{\textstyle{\color{c00}{\textit{real-ize}}\ {\rm to}\ R \rm\ the\ denominator}}$

In this quadratic case the "simpler multiple" of $\alpha\in R[i]\,$ is simply its norm $\,N(\alpha) = {\alpha\bar\alpha}\in R$ $$\begin{align}\alpha &= a+bi\\ \Rightarrow\ \bar\alpha &= a-bi\end{align} \Rightarrow\ \alpha\bar\alpha = a^2+b^2 = r\in R\qquad$$

Bill Dubuque
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  • ok this was interesting to read thank you. We were only given the theory but no real explanation behind it so I think this will help me move forward with further questions thank you. – 12589user Feb 07 '20 at 16:37
  • @user729580 Alas, these ideas are rarely mentioned in textbooks (but they are clear with hindsight once one learns more general methods). – Bill Dubuque Feb 07 '20 at 16:39
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It’s not true in general that $(a,b)(a,-b)=1$.

Note that for $R=\mathbb R$, the multiplication on $S$ is the multiplication on $\mathbb C$, so if you’re familiar with $\mathbb C$, you can use your intuitions for that to guide you. In $\mathbb C$, the inverse of the conjugate is the conjugate of the inverse.

The same is true here: If $(a,b)$ is invertible, then there is $(c,d)$ such that $(ac-db,ad+bc)=(1,0)$; and then $(a,-b),(c,-d)=(ac-(-d)(-b),a(-d)+(-b)c)=(ac-db,ad+bc)=(1,0).$

joriki
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    Thank you so much, this has completely cleared up the confusion. – 12589user Feb 07 '20 at 13:16
  • sorry but I was just having a further think about this and I don't know if I am making this more confusing than it needs to be. How does this show the if and only if statement? – 12589user Feb 10 '20 at 10:37
  • @user729580: The "if and only if" really only has one direction here, since you can substitute $-b$ for $b$ once you've shown either direction to get the other direction. I showed that $(a,-b)$ is invertible if $(a,b)$ is invertible; it follows that $(a,-(-b))=(a,b)$ is invertible if $(a,-b)$ is invertible. – joriki Feb 10 '20 at 10:47