I'm having some trouble with the following problem. I've listed what I've used so far.
(Edit: Made a mistake with the second integral.)
The problem is as follows:
If a function $f: [0,1] \rightarrow \mathbb R$ is continuous and $\int_0^x f = \int_x^1 f, \forall x \in [0,1]$, show that $f(x) = 0, \forall x \in [0,1]$.
I would assume a proof by contradiction. So assume that $\exists x \in [0,1]$ such that $f(x) \neq 0$.
By the FTOC, since $\int_0^x f = \int_x^1 f$, it follows that if $F'(x) = f(x), \forall x \in [0,1]$, then $F(x)-F(0) = F(1) - F(x)$, or equivalently:
$F(x) = \dfrac{F(1)+F(0)}{2}$.
I'm wondering whether the given approach is correct or whether I should prove the question in a different approach.
Any feedback would be appreciated!