I need help in understanding the proof of the theorem from the this question: Countable and uncountable number: Answer by Andrés E. Caicedo
Third, there are $G_δ$ sets $G$ such that $G$ and its complement have uncountable intersection with any open set. For instance, let ($q_n:n≥0$) enumerate the rationals. For $i,j∈N$ let $$I_{i,j}=\left(q_i-\frac1{2^{i+j}},q_i+\frac1{2^{i+j}}\right)$$ $$G_j=\bigcup_i I_{i,j}$$ $$G=\bigcap_j G_j$$ But it’s obvious that $$I_{1,1}\supset I_{2,1} \supset I_{3,1} \supset \ldots$$ $$I_{1,2}\supset I_{2,2} \supset I_{3,2} \supset \ldots$$ $$\ldots$$ Then $G_1 \supset G_2 \supset \ldots \supset G_n \supset \ldots $ . But $$G=\bigcap_j G_j=Q$$ And then all the other arguments of the author of the answer are meaningless. Where is the mistake?