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Variance is defined as $$V(X) = \sum (x-\mu)^2 .p(x)$$ And standard deviation is $\sigma_X = \sqrt{V(x)}$

But I feel it makes more sense to define $\sigma_X$ as $\sum( |x-\mu|.p(x))$ instead because the mod takes care of negative distances and multiplication by p(x) would give us expected value of the deviation we should expect. Then why is SD defined the way it is?

Archer
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1 Answers1

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Standard deviation has a natural geometricc interpretation as the $L^2$ distance of a random variable from its mean. What you're describing is an example of absolute deviation, and would be $L^1$ instead. The $L^2$ case for deviation and related issues is more tractable, is amenable to more incisive theorems (such as this), and admits the only geometric interpretation on which our random variables form a Hilbert space, which has all sorts of benefits when we linearly transform them to analyze latent variables (e.g. viz here and here). In particular, the concern here is covariance as a generalization of variance.

J.G.
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