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I started studying the book of Daniel Huybrechts, Complex Geometry An Introduction. I tried studying backwards as much as possible, but I have been stuck on the concepts of almost complex structures and complexification. I have studied several books and articles on the matter including ones by Keith Conrad, Jordan Bell, Gregory W. Moore, Steven Roman, Suetin, Kostrikin and Mainin, Gauthier

I have several questions on the concepts of almost complex structures and complexification. Here is one:

Question:

Let $L$ be $\mathbb C$-vector space, possibly infinite-dimensional. From Suetin, Kostrikin and Mainin (see 12.13 of Part I), Wikipedia and (implicitly) Daniel Huybrechts, Complex Geometry An Introduction (see Chapter 1.2), we get that $(L_{\mathbb R})^{\mathbb C}$ is $\mathbb C$-isomorphic to an external direct sum: $(L_{\mathbb R})^{\mathbb C} \cong L \ \text{external-}\bigoplus \ \overline L$ in a 'canonical' way.

How exactly does this 'canonical' $\mathbb C$-isomorphism make us think of $(L_{\mathbb R})^{\mathbb C}$ as more like $L \bigoplus \overline L$ than like $L \bigoplus L = L^2$ ? I think of something like 'unique' isomorphisms as asked about in this post. I might be confusing the terms 'canonical' and 'unique'. Also, this post might be relevant.

My understanding of this:

We have the literal (not just isomorphism) internal direct sum $$(L_{\mathbb R})^{\mathbb C} = (L_{\mathbb R}^2,J) = (L^{1,0},J^{1,0}) \ \text{internal-} \ \bigoplus (L^{0,1},J^{0,1})$$

where

  • $J$ is the almost complex structure on $L_{\mathbb R}^2$, $J(l,m):=(-m,l)$,

  • $J^{1,0}$ is $J$ with domain and range restricted to $L^{1,0}$ (we can check that $J(L^{1,0}) \subseteq L^{1,0}$) such that $J^{1,0}$ is an almost complex structure on $L^{1,0}$

  • and $J^{0,1}$ is $J$ with domain and range restricted to $L^{0,1}$ (we can check that $J(L^{0,1}) \subseteq L^{0,1}$) such that $J^{0,1}$ is an almost complex structure on $L^{0,1}$.

Then

  1. Let $\hat i$ be the unique almost complex structure on $L_{\mathbb R}$ such that $L=(L_{\mathbb R}, \hat i)$. We have that $L$ and $(L^{1,0},J^{1,0})$ are $\mathbb C$-isomorphic by $\gamma_L(l)=(l,-\hat i(l))$.

  2. $\overline L=(L_{\mathbb R}, -\hat i)$ and $(L^{0,1},J^{0,1})$ are $\mathbb C$-isomorphic by $\gamma_{\overline L}(l)=(l,\hat i(l))$

  3. Finally, the isomorphism is $f = (\varphi \circ (\gamma_L \ \text{external-}\oplus \ \gamma_{\overline L}))^{-1}$, where $\varphi$ is the standard $\mathbb C$-isomorphism between internal and external direct sums: $\varphi: (L^{1,0},J^{1,0}) \ \text{external-} \ \bigoplus (L^{0,1},J^{0,1}) \to (L^{1,0},J^{1,0}) \ \text{internal-} \ \bigoplus (L^{0,1},J^{0,1})$.

Guess: Based on this post and this post (and 3 of my other posts: Post 1, Post 2, Post 3), I guess canonical/natural just means basis-free, i.e. we don't need axiom of choice, instead of saying that $(L_{\mathbb R})^{\mathbb C}$ is 'more like' $L \bigoplus \overline L$ than like $L \bigoplus L = L^2$ unless an isomorphism constructed without axiom of choice is 'more' of an isomorphism than one constructed with the axiom of choice. I don't really bother to think of 'unique' isomorphism anymore. I think only of 'canonical'/'natural' isomorphism as in basis-free i.e. no axiom of choice.

BCLC
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1 Answers1

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Let $L$ be a complex vector space, with $L_\mathbb{R}$ its underlying real vector space. We can then complexify the underlying real vector space to get $K = L_\mathbb{R} \otimes_\mathbb{R} \mathbb{C}$. The question is: why is $K$ naturally isomorphic to $L \oplus \overline{L}$?

First lets try to figure out how to split up $K$ into two canonically defined $\mathbb{C}$-subspaces. Consider $J: L_\mathbb{R} \to L_\mathbb{R}$, the complex structure on $L_\mathbb{R}$ coming from multiplication by $i$ in $L$. What we can do is complexify $J$ to get a $\mathbb{C}$-linear map $J^\mathbb{C}: K \to K$. Since $(J^\mathbb{C})^2 = -1$, the complex vector space $K$ decomposes into the $(+i)$ and $(-i)$ eigenspaces of $J^\mathbb{C}$, lets call these $K = K_i \oplus K_{-i}$.

Consider the $\mathbb{R}$-linear map $p_i = (L \to L_\mathbb{R} \to K \to K_i)$, where the last map is projection along the eigendecomposition $K = K_i \oplus K_{-i}$. Then this map is in fact $\mathbb{C}$-linear, since $p_i(Jl) = i p_i(l)$ for all $l \in L$. Furthermore, $p_i$ is an isomorphism (why? consider the kernel of the last projection...) and so we've found a $\mathbb{C}$-linear isomorphism $L \to K_i$. If you do the same thing for $K_{-i}$, you get a $\mathbb{C}$-antilinear isomorphism $p_{-i}: L \to K_{-i}$, and hence $K_{-i}$ looks like the complex conjugate vector space $\overline{L}$.

Joppy
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  • Thanks Joppy. I edited my post with what is now hopefully a better guess even if not correct. My question precisely is what is meant by saying that the isomorphism is natural/canonical? A. Basis-free? B. is in the sense that the 2 subspaces of K are 'canonical' as you say? C. both? D. other? if B (or C), then in what way are they 'canonical'? – BCLC Mar 02 '20 at 03:20
  • @JohnSmithKyon They are canonical in the sense that they are defined using only the intrinsic properties of what has been given. The projections $p_i$ and $p_{-i}$ are operators which only depend on information in the problem: namely the multiplication by $i$ on the original vector space $L$, and the complexification $(-)^\mathbb{C}$. It just happens that $p_i$ is $\mathbb{C}$-linear while $p_{-i}$ is $\mathbb{C}$-antilinear and so they define an isomorphism to $L \oplus \overline{L}$. Of course, there are isomorphisms to $L \oplus L$, but writing them down requires some arbitrary choice. – Joppy Mar 02 '20 at 04:05
  • Does 'choice' refer to 'axiom of choice' ? Also I meant basis-independent, not basis-free. I forgot the term. – BCLC Mar 06 '20 at 04:33
  • @JohnSmithKyon No, not the axiom of choice, just some kind of choice like "we need to choose a basis to write down a map". You are probably familiar with the necessity of choice when writing down a map to the dual. If $V$ is a finite-dimensional vector space, then we know $V \cong V^$ (just for dimension reasons), but writing down an isomorphism $V \to V^$ requires some extra choice (a choice of basis, a choice of inner product, etc). The exact same thing holds for $V$ and $\overline{V}$: writing down a $\mathbb{C}$-linear map between them will require some arbitrary choice. – Joppy Mar 06 '20 at 05:06
  • Joppy, they are equivalent right? – BCLC Mar 06 '20 at 05:09
  • @JohnSmithKyon You only need the axiom of choice to show that every infinite-dimensional vector space has a basis. In the finite-dimensional case, a simple induction works.

    But, we do not necessarily need the axiom of choice to relate two infinite-dimensional vector spaces. For instance, my answer above works when everything is infinite-dimensional, but does not appeal to the axiom of choice (or something equivalent to it) anywhere.

    – Joppy Mar 06 '20 at 05:12
  • Right so my question is: Is 'does not appeal to the axiom of choice' equivalent to 'canonical' ? – BCLC Mar 06 '20 at 05:14
  • @JohnSmithKyon No, it is not. "Canonical" is a little in the eye of the beholder, but I think quite a useful definition of it is "would someone else doing the same proof come up with the same map"? Another way of stating it is in terms of functors in category theory. – Joppy Mar 06 '20 at 05:24
  • @JohnSmithKyon As an example, if all you are given is a finite-dimensional $\mathbb{R}$-vector space $V$ and asked to write down a $\mathbb{R}$-linear isomorphism to $V^$, basically all you can do is choose bases in each space and try to write down an isomorphism by sending one basis to the other. But if you are first given an inner product space* $(V, (-, -))$, then there is a canonical isomorphism $V \to V^*$ by sending a vector $v$ to the linear functional $(v, -)$. So whether something is "canonical" or not depends on the data you are given to start off with. – Joppy Mar 06 '20 at 05:27
  • Oh wait wait I missed the 'a choice of inner product, etc' part. So 'canonical' is stronger than 'does not appeal to the axiom of choice' because 'canonical' means more than just not appealing to the existence of bases? – BCLC Mar 06 '20 at 06:02
  • @JohnSmithKyon Appealing to the existence of bases is irrelevant. Its not a question of whether two spaces are isomorphic, its how they are isomorphic. Saying that two things are canonically isomorphic means that you have a particular isomorphism in mind - existence is not enough. I would really encourage you to try the example above to try to write down an isomorphism $V \to V^*$ without choosing bases, or using an inner product. – Joppy Mar 06 '20 at 06:04
  • Thanks joppy! Do you mean the same thing as levap? – BCLC Mar 06 '20 at 06:36