I have a number theory question that has me stumped.
Let $a, b, c \in \Bbb Z$ with $a$ and $b$ both not zero. Prove: $(\frac{a}{(a,b)}, \frac{b}{(a,b)}) = 1$.
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
I have a number theory question that has me stumped.
Let $a, b, c \in \Bbb Z$ with $a$ and $b$ both not zero. Prove: $(\frac{a}{(a,b)}, \frac{b}{(a,b)}) = 1$.
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
@vonbrand's comment is the most succinct answer. Here is a more verbose approach:
Let $d =\gcd(a,b)$. Let $l = \gcd(\frac{a}{d}, \frac{b}{d})$. Then $l \mid \frac{a}{d}$, $l \mid \frac{b}{d}$, which implies $ld \mid a$, $ld \mid b$. Hence $ld \le d$, from which we get $l \le 1$. Since $1 \mid a$, $1 \mid b$, we have $1 \le l$. So $l=1$.
Bezout's identity will give you the answer immediately: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/B%C3%A9zout%27s_identity
It tells us that there exist integers $x,y$ such that $$xa+yb=(a,b).$$Divided by $(a,b)$ gives $x\frac{a}{(a,b)}+y\frac{b}{(a,b)}=1$, and note that the GCD of $\frac{a}{(a,b)}$ and $\frac{b}{(a,b)}$ must divide the RHS.