I've been trying to find the way to solve this problem.
Now based on what I've read so far that if $(k A)^{-1} = 1/k A^{-1}$
Since we already have the inverse of $(2A)^{-1}$ do I need to create an I?
I've been trying to find the way to solve this problem.
Now based on what I've read so far that if $(k A)^{-1} = 1/k A^{-1}$
Since we already have the inverse of $(2A)^{-1}$ do I need to create an I?