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In one chapter of my book they introduce velocity and acceleration as functions of position instead of functions of time. They also show a way how to solve these problems using a differential equation, when acceleration is given.

The differential equation was introduced rather briefly and only using Leibniz notation, which I find convenient to use, but sometimes omits details. I tried to derive the differential equation myself, but got stuck.

It follows my work, trying to expand the $dx$ ect. using full function names including parameters, that makes it easier to see for me what is a function of which quantity.


Say that instead of velocity being a function of time, let velocity be a function of position. Then:

$$v=v(x(t))$$

Now we differentiate both sides with respect to time $t$. Since $v$ is a composition of two functions, we use the chain rule:

$$\frac{d v(x(t))}{dt} = \frac{d v(x(t))}{dx(t)} \cdot \frac{dx(t)}{dt}$$

Since it's defined that the first derivative of velocity is acceleration, we can rewrite the left hand side:

$$a(x(t)) = \frac{d v(x(t))}{dx(t)} \cdot \frac{dx(t)}{dt}$$

Also we know that the first derivative of position $x$ is velocity, that is $\frac{dx(t)}{dt} = v(t)$, we can rewrite parts of the right hand side:

$$a(x(t)) = \frac{d v(x(t))}{dx(t)} \cdot v(t)$$

Now here is where I'm stuck. We can separate the differential equation from above like so:

$$a(x(t)) dx(t) = v(t) dv(x(t))$$

Assuming we know the acceleration, we can integrate both sides and find $v$, BUT, isn't it true that we find $v(t)$, that is, velocity as a function of time? But we actually started out saying that velocity is a function of position?

I thought the whole point of solving the differential equation was to find a explicit function $v(x(t))$ (a function of position), assuming we know the acceleration.

BMBM
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  • There is so much abuse of notation going on here (not entirely your fault... we're all taught to do things a certain way, but are not taught what is implicitly going on). My first remark is that you're using the same letter $v$ to mean two completely different (but related) things, and same thing for acceleration $a$. Because "velocity as a function of time" and "velocity as a function of distance" are clearly two different functions, but yet you're using the same letter $v$ to describe them (again, probably not your fault... physics books love this sort of confusion for some reason) – peek-a-boo Jan 08 '20 at 01:02
  • You should use (for example) $v$ to mean "velocity as a function of time" and $\tilde{v}$ to mean "velocity as a function of position". So, what is the relationship between them? Strictly speaking, there is an invertible function, let's call it $\gamma$ such that for each $t$, $\gamma(t)$ is the posiition at time $t$. Conversely, for each position $x$, $\gamma^{-1}(x)$ is the time elapsed while travelling a position $x$. So, the formal relationship is that $\tilde{v} = v \circ \gamma^{-1}$ and $v = \tilde{v} \circ \gamma$ – peek-a-boo Jan 08 '20 at 01:06
  • and of course $v = \gamma'$ (i.e velocity is derivative of position). but very often, what happens is (1) people simply reuse the same letter $x$ instead of introducing a different letter $\gamma$ (which can be very confusing if, like you're currently trying, to figure out precisely what all the dependencies are), and (2) because $\gamma$ is invertible, one can "convert between functions of position and time" so they don't bother making this explicit in the notation. – peek-a-boo Jan 08 '20 at 01:08
  • @peek-a-boo Thanks for your comments, I was already kind of expecting that the notation used in the question is not accurate, haha. I also think I'm digging too deep for what the course I take wants me to learn. Anyway, I read your answer here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3498785/what-do-function-of-and-differentiate-with-respect-to-mean/3498849#3498849 which also touches on a similar topic - I also understand that there is some conversion function, which makes sense why the DE is valid then. – BMBM Jan 08 '20 at 23:39
  • @peek-a-boo You want to convert your comments to an answer? I would be OK with accepting it. Up to you. :) – BMBM Jan 08 '20 at 23:39
  • lol I don't think you're digging too deep. imo this should all be clarified right away in first year calculus courses, because "unlearning" the incorrect/misleading statements is always much much harder than doing things properly from the beginning (based on my personal experience) – peek-a-boo Jan 09 '20 at 03:09

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I'll continue based on my comments. I assume that the task at hand is that you're given the acceleration as a function of position, and you want to figure out what the velocity is as a function of position?

And I guess you've seen an argument something like the following: \begin{align} a &= \dfrac{dv}{dt} \\ &= \dfrac{dv}{dx} \cdot \dfrac{dx}{dt} \tag{chain rule}\\ &= \dfrac{dv}{dx}v \\ &= \dfrac{d}{dx} \left( \dfrac{v(x)^2}{2}\right) \end{align} Hence, \begin{align} v(x) &= \pm \sqrt{2 \int a(x)\, dx + C} \end{align} where the $\pm$ is to be decided based on the sign of the velocity for the given problem at hand, and the arbitrary constant $C$ is to be determined based on initial conditions


While the above argument is very quick, it completely mixes up the roles played by different functions by hiding it all inside Leibniz's notation and avoiding writing out the compositions involved.

A more "behind the scenes" calculation might proceed along the following lines. We assume that we're given a function $\alpha: x \mapsto \alpha(x)$, which we interpret as the acceleration as a function of position. Now, the key step which is left implicit in the above discussion is that we actually have an invertible function $t\mapsto \gamma(t)$ which we interpret as giving for each time $t$, the position at time $t$. Also, for each position $x$, we interpret $\gamma^{-1}(x)$ as being the time elapsed while travelling a position $x$.

Note that it is crucial that $\gamma$ be invertible for this all to make sense; it is precisely because this function is invertible that it is "acceptable" to be so imprecise as to whether we think of velocity/acceleration as functions of time or position. Let me now make a list of all the functions with everything made explicit:

  • $\gamma$ is position as a function of time (which like I said, means that for each time $t$, $\gamma(t)$ is the position at time $t$)
  • $\gamma^{-1}$ is time as a function of position
  • $v := \gamma'$ is the velocity as a function of time
  • $\nu := v \circ \gamma^{-1}$ is velocity as a function of position
  • $\alpha$ as I defined above is the acceleration as a function of position (which we assume is given)
  • Lastly, $a:= \alpha \circ \gamma$ is the acceleration as a function of time. But also (by definition) we have $a = v' = \gamma''$

So, let's now carry out (almost) the same computation as above. In every equal sign that follows, we have an actual equality of functions (you might have to refer to the above list, and compose with $\gamma$ or $\gamma^{-1}$ where appropriate to get from one equal sign to the next): \begin{align} \alpha &= a \circ \gamma^{-1} \\ &= v' \circ \gamma^{-1} \\ &= (\nu \circ \gamma)' \circ \gamma^{-1} \\ &= [(\nu' \circ \gamma) \cdot \gamma'] \circ \gamma^{-1} \tag{chain rule} \\ &= (\nu' \circ \gamma \circ \gamma^{-1}) \cdot (\gamma' \circ \gamma^{-1}) \\ &=\nu' \cdot (v \circ \gamma^{-1}) \\ &= \nu' \cdot \nu \\ &= \left( \dfrac{\nu^2}{2}\right)' \end{align} Hopefully, now you can try to pattern-match each equality in these two derivations, and see where exactly the abuse of notation is going on (and how to fix it for yourself in future examples).

From here, we would have to integrate both sides, and solve for $\nu$ in terms of an integral of $\alpha$.


One final remark: very often in physics, people would use the notation $x(t)$ instead of $\gamma(t)$ to describe the position as a function of time. Most of the time, I would have absolutely no issue with such notation. So, they are considering the curve as $t\mapsto x(t)$ for what I wrote as $t \mapsto \gamma(t)$. But the trouble in this example is that we also have to consider the inverse function $\gamma^{-1}$, which we like to think of as a function of position. So, we like to use $x$ as the input, and write $\gamma^{-1}(x)$ as the output (the time elapsed for position $x$).

Clearly, there will be an issue if we choose to write $t \mapsto x(t)$ for the name of the curve, because then the inverse function would be $x^{-1}(\cdot)$, which people might refer to as $t(\cdot)$. But now what letter do we use for the arguments? $x$ again? so that we write $t(x)$? Clearly this would be very confusing because we're using the letters $t,x$ to mean both a function and also points in the domain. Thus, in this specific case, I chose to introduce a new letter $\gamma$ to keep the two concepts separate, so that we can free up the letters $t,x$ to simply mean points in the domain (of $\gamma$ and $\gamma^{-1}$ respectively).

peek-a-boo
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    Thank you, this is a great answer, exactly what I was looking for. I can see you had similar questions at some time. Appreciate that you took the time to answer me. – BMBM Jan 10 '20 at 23:36
  • @peek-a-boo, quick conceptual question if you don’t mind: for example, given the position of a ball as a function of time $f(t)=x$ is it correct to say that this function is well defined because at each time $t$ the ball’s position $x$ is unique? Just want to make sure my wording is precise in my description. – Taylor Rendon Jul 08 '22 at 02:41
  • @TaylorRendon yes that's right; the ball isn't at two places at the same time (unless it's a quantum ball :) Also, as long as you know the difference between the well-definition of a function and injectivity, you're fine. – peek-a-boo Jul 08 '22 at 07:36
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    @peek-a-boo, Gotcha! For this description to refer to an injective function, would we have to say that "the ball's position can't be the same for different times" or "the ball's position is distinct for distinct times"? :) Thank you for your time by the way. – Taylor Rendon Jul 08 '22 at 11:52
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    @TaylorRendon yes exactly – peek-a-boo Jul 08 '22 at 11:54
  • @peek-a-boo - Okay great! Last (hopefully not redundant) question pertaining to this: since i've been thinking about it, my last comment (for an injective description) makes sense because, for an injective function, each element of the range has exactly one preimage (or equivalently, each element of the codomain has at most one preimage)? – Taylor Rendon Jul 12 '22 at 14:17
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    @TaylorRendon yup – peek-a-boo Jul 12 '22 at 14:32