I was reading about Horner's method and then I saw the following statement:
If $f(x)$ is a polynomial such that: $p(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{n}a_{i}x^{i}$,and if we want to >compute the value of this polynomial for $x=x_0$ then defining a sequence of constants : $$b_n=a_n$$ $$b_{n-1}=a_{n-1}+b_{n}x_0$$ implies $$p(x_0)=b_0$$
well I understand this but the problem is here:
Also it can be proven that; $$p\left(x\right)=\left(b_{1}+b_{2}x+...+b_{n}x^{n- 1}\right)\left(x-x_{0}\right)+b_{0}$$ I tried to figure it out, but still I don't know how to prove that.