Let $p$ be a prime and $b,k\in \mathbb{N}$, if $gcd(b,p)=1$ and $k|p-1$ then $x^k \equiv b \mod{p} $ has exactly $k$ incongruent solution.
Is the above statement correct, I feel like I had got a counterexample for this, but I don't remember now. Can anyone help to show either this is a correct statement or to find a counter-example.