Can anyone give me a simple proof of this statement . I know how to prove it using principle of mathematical induction so please prove it in some other way.
Asked
Active
Viewed 59 times
-1
-
2Well, $x-y$ divides $x^n-y^n$ so $41-14=27$ divides your expression. – lulu Dec 31 '19 at 16:43
-
1https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/188657/why-is-an-bn-divisible-by-a-b – lab bhattacharjee Dec 31 '19 at 16:46
2 Answers
1
Reducing modulo $27$, \begin{align*} 41^a - 14^a &\equiv 14^a - 14^a \\ &\equiv 0 \pmod{27} \end{align*} (since $41 = 27 + 14$) so $27$ divides your number.

Izaak van Dongen
- 3,791