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If $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x) dx = 1$$ then $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty f\left(x-\frac1{x}\right)dx$$ is equal to which of $0$, $1$, $-1$, $2$?

(original problem image)

I tried this first directly, then after putting specific functions also. In both cases, I am not getting. Can anyone please help me in this?

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Aman Gupta
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