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For the following theorem:

Theorem 1: Let $(A,T_A)$ be a subspace of a topological space $(X,T)$, let $U\subset A$, and let $a\in A$. then $U$ is a neighborhood of $a$ with respect to $T_A$ if and only if there is a neighborhood $V$ of $a$ with respect to $T$ such that $U=A\cap V.$

If the phrase "$U$ is an open set such that $a\in U$" means "$U$ is a neighborhood of $x$", then don't I prove the above theorem the same way as I prove about open sets in subspace topology stated as theorem 2:

Theorem 2: Let $(A,T_A)$ be a subspace of a topological space $(X,T)$, let $U\subset A$, then $U$ is an open set of $a$ in the subspace topology $T_A$ if and only if there is an open set $V$ of $X$ containing $a$ such that $U=A\cap V.$

The reason I ask is because proving facts about neighborhood of a point $x$ in the context of subspace topology is not exactly the same or straightforward as proving about open sets. I am just wondering if we know about theorem 2, is theorem 1 really necessary in the theory about subspace topology. When I mean necessary, are there any further results which would be easier having theorem 1 already proved.

Thank you in advance.

Seth
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  • Theorem 2 is more the definition of the subspace topology. How is it a theorem? i.e. how is the subspace topolgoy defined in your text? – Henno Brandsma Dec 30 '19 at 22:34
  • the definitionis Let $A$ be a subset of a topological space $(X,T)$. The subspace topology or relative topology on $A$ determined by $T$ is the collection $T_{A}={U \cap A: U \in T }$. I am wondering how theorem 1 is still a trivial consequence of theorem 2. Also, when I was answering your comment on an earlier post... – Seth Dec 31 '19 at 16:13
  • @HennoBrandsma ... [Questions about inverse image and boundary of open maps and closed maps in general topological spaces] (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3353580/questions-about-inverse-image-and-boundary-of-open-maps-and-closed-maps-in-gener), I used the notation $W(y)$ for when an open set containing the point $y$, there, I thought there is a similar standard notation compare with the neighborhood containing $x$ say. I see various topology texts using function type notation to denote neighborhood or open sets containing a point. Lastly, is the concept of neighborhood of a set... – Seth Dec 31 '19 at 16:14
  • @HennoBrandsma ...still being used. It seems redundant [neighborhood of a set] (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neighbourhood_(mathematics) when there is the definition of open set and neighborhood of a point. – Seth Dec 31 '19 at 16:17
  • It's a convenient abbreviation. I like neighbourhood to have the general meaning (so containing an open set around the point in question) and I'll add "open" if that's more appropriate or necessary. – Henno Brandsma Dec 31 '19 at 16:21
  • @HennoBrandsma thank you for clearing that up. Happy New Year to you. I wish and hope one day I can know point set topology as in depth as you do. – Seth Dec 31 '19 at 16:45

2 Answers2

2

If we define neighbourhood as usual (see e.g. Wikipedia) and the subspace topology from $(X, \mathcal{T})$ on $A \subseteq X$ by

$$\{O \cap A: O \in \mathcal{T}\}$$

then "Theorem 2" is almost immediate: if $U \subseteq A$ is an open neighbourhood of $a \in A$, if $U$ is open in $A$ (so $U = V \cap A$ for some $V \in \mathcal{T}$, i.e. open in $X$) and $a \in U$ (so $a \in V$ too). So $V$ is an open neighbourhood of $a$, that, when intersected with $A$ gives $U$. The reverse is also obvious: if $V$ is an open neighbourhood (in $X$) of some $a \in A$, then $V \in \mathcal{T}$ so $U:=V \cap A$ is open in $A$ by definition of the subspace topology, and still $a \in U$ (definition of intersection).

Sometimes the set of open sets containing $a$ is denoted $\mathcal{O}(a)$ and we can write this succinctly (using subscripts for the space we are considering) as:

$$\forall a \in A: \mathcal{O}_A(a) = \{O \cap A: O \in \mathcal{O}_X(a)\}$$

and Theorem 1. is the extension of this to all neighbourhoods $\mathcal{N}(a)$ of points of $a$:

$$\forall a \in A: \mathcal{N}_A(a) = \{O \cap A: O \in \mathcal{N}_X(a)\}$$

and the proof is as easy as that of Thm. 2. : if $U$ is a neighborhood of $a \in A$ it contains by definition an open neighbourhood $O$ of $a$. By 2. this is of the form $O' \cap A$ where $O' \in \mathcal{O}_X(a)$. So we can just define $V= U \cup O'$ which is in $\mathcal{N}_X(a)$ as a superset of $O'$ and $V \cap A= (U \cap A) \cup (O' \cap A)=U \cup O = U$. Reversely, if $V$ is in $\mathcal{N}_X(a)$ and $a \in A$ we know that there is $O \in \mathcal{O}_X(a)$ with $O \subseteq V$ and then $a \in O \cap A \subseteq V \cap A$ so that $V \cap A \in \mathcal{N}_A(a)$ by definition of a neighbourhood of $a$.

Henno Brandsma
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  • thank you for the write up explanation. I also respond to your answered comment in one of my earlier posts. (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3457833/questions-concerning-quotient-spaces-specifically-collapsing-a-set-to-a-point) I am not sure if you saw it. Anyways, thank you for taking the time and patience in answering all my questions despite my poor reading comprehensions at times over the finer details of math definition wordings. – Seth Jan 01 '20 at 06:48
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If the phrase "$U$ is an open set such that $a \in U$" means "$U$ is a neighborhood of [$a$]"

It (usually) doesn't. The canonical definition of neighborhood in topology is (borrowing from your textbook's notation): subset $U \subseteq X$ is a neighborhood of point $a \in X$ if and only if $U$ contains an open set which contains $a$. Specifically, one doesn't require $U$ itself to be open.

Therefore Theorem 1 and Theorem 2, while very much akin to each other, are stating slightly different results. Actually Theorem 1 is a fairly trivial corollary of Theorem 2: can you see how?

cip999
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  • both theorems and the way open set and neighborhood are defined came from a book called Foundations of Topology by C Wayne Patty. I was surprised when i saw how he put the two definition to mean the same. I don't see how theorem 1 is a trivial consequence of theorem 2. I think in some topology text, theorem 2 gets mentioned and theorem 1 never get mentioned. Also, in one of the direction for theorem 1, proving it is not as simple as proving theorem 2 where one needs to find what the neighborhood $V$ is suppose to be. – Seth Dec 30 '19 at 14:59