Let's consider $a_1$ and $a_2$: \begin{align*} a_1&=a(p)\\ a_2&=a(q) \end{align*} $r_1$ and $r_2$ are the orders of $a_1$ and $a_2$ in the rings $\mathbb Z_p$ and $\mathbb Z_q$. $$a_1^r(p) = a^r(p)=1,$$ because $a^r=1(pq)$. Since $r_1$ is the order of $a_1$ in $\mathbb Z_p$, the number $r$ is a multiple of $r_1$. The same reasoning for $\mathbb Z_q$ gives us $r$ is a multiple of $r_2$.
Definition of variables
$N = p \cdot q $, where $p$ and $q$ are primes
$gcd(a,N) = 1$ that is $a$ and $N$ are co-primes.
Periodic function is described as$ Fa(x) = a^x mod N $
$a^r \equiv 1 \pmod N$ that is $r$ is the period of the Fa(x)
Now my question is How the sixth line, How is it coming?
How does $\,a^r \equiv 1\pmod{\!pq}\,$ lead to $\,a_1^r (p) = a^r(p) = 1$?