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Let $n$, $m$ - natural numbers, at least one $>0$. Let $a$ - natural number $>1$. Prove $\gcd(a^m - 1, a^n - 1)=a^{\gcd(m,n)} - 1$.

It is probably easy, but I cant catch it. I thought abut treating these guys as polynomials of variable "$a$". Looking that way, I know that $a^d-1$ divides $a^n - 1$ (both treated as polynomials) if and only if $d$ divides $n$. Therefore, I see that guy on the right divides guys on the left. But how I can it is the biggest common divisor? I don't see it. Looking from the ideal point of view is also pointless. That exercise does not have hint at the end of book I'm working with. Thanks in advance for help and Merry Christmas.

Angina Seng
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robin3210
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