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I've found really good answers for the question from link below.

Any open subset of $\Bbb R$ is a at most countable union of disjoint open intervals. [Collecting Proofs]

But I have a question about how $\mathbb{R}$, which is open subset of $\mathbb{R}$, can be expressed as union of countable collection of disjoint open intervals. In my intuition, it seems not possible.... Thanks for your help.

twnzre
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1 Answers1

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Open intervals in $\Bbb R$ are allowed to extend to $\infty$, so $(-\infty,\infty)$ is one open interval that is all of $\Bbb R$.

Ross Millikan
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