I've been struggling with this for a while:
Info: I have a bot on Discord that posts a random question every 4.5 minutes (on average). It posts the question from a database I prepared, which has 150 unique questions. Questions can repeat.
I want to find the probability that all the questions were posted atleast once, in $150 + n$ posts (i.e in $675 + 4.5n$ minutes). I know the probability as:
$$p = \frac{\text{possibilities of getting all questions atleast once}}{\text{all possibilities}}$$
For the denominator, it's simply $150^{150+n}$.
For the numerator, for some 150 questions it posts, we have $150!$ ways of getting all questions atleast once, and for the remaining $n$ questions, we would have $150^n$ ways, giving us $150! \times 150^n$.
Piecing this together, I should get:
$$p = \frac{150! \times 150^n}{150^{150+n}}$$
$$p = \frac{150! \times 150^n}{150^{150} \times 150^n}$$
$$p = \frac{150!}{150^{150}}$$
This makes no sense. It says that the probability is independent of $n$, which is completely absurd, since with increasing $n$, the probability that you'd see all the challenges should increase!
What have I done wrong?