Let $R$ denote a commutative ring. $r\in R$ is called irreducible if $r\notin R^{\times}, r\ne 0$, and if $r = ab\Rightarrow a\in R^{\times} \vee b\in R^{\times}$. All right, but isn't every non-unit element $r \in R$ irreducible, since $r=1\cdot r$, and $1\in R^{\times}$?
I guess I am wrong, but don't know where I'm wrong.
Kind regards, MathIsFun