What is a simple proof that $\sin 1^\circ$ is irrational?
I have no idea how to solve this problem.
What is a simple proof that $\sin 1^\circ$ is irrational?
I have no idea how to solve this problem.
Assume $\sin (1^\circ)$ is rational. Then both $\cos^2(1^\circ)=1-\sin^2(1^\circ)$ and $\cos(2^\circ)=1-2\sin^2(1^\circ)$ are also rational. Since $\cos((2^n)^\circ)=2\cos^2((2^{n-1})^\circ)-1,$ inductively, all the $\cos((2^n)^\circ)$ are rational, for $n\ge 1.$
Now, we have \begin{equation} \begin{split} \frac{\sqrt3}2&=\cos(30^\circ)\\ &=\cos(32^\circ-2^\circ)\\ &=\cos(32^\circ)\cos(2^\circ)+\sin(32^\circ)\sin(2^\circ)\\ &=\cos(32^\circ)\cos(2^\circ)+2^6\cos(16^\circ)\cos(8^\circ)\cos(4^\circ)\cos(2^\circ)\cos^2(1^\circ)\sin(1^\circ)\\ \end{split} \end{equation}
The LHS is irrational, while the RHS is rational, a contradiction.
This follows from the fact that $2 \sin \alpha \pi = i(e^{-\alpha \pi} - e^{\alpha \pi})$ is an algebraic integer, where $\alpha = \frac{1}{180}$.
Therefore, if $\sin \alpha \pi$ were rational, then $2 \sin \alpha \pi $ would be a rational number that is an algebraic integer.
Since $\mathbb Z$ is integrally closed, it would follow that $2 \sin \alpha \pi$ is indeed an integer. This is not possible, as it lies between $0$ and $1$.