Let
$$K_t(x)=\frac{1}{(4 \pi i t)^{\frac{n}{2}}}e^{i \frac{\lvert x \rvert^2}{4t}}\quad x \in \mathbb{R}^n,\ t \in \mathbb{R},\ t\ne 0.$$
Clearly this is not a $L^1$ or $L^2$ function with respect to the spatial variable $x$. Nevertheless, the paper I'm reading says:
"A direct computation shows that $\hat{K}_t(\xi)=e^{-it \lvert \xi \rvert^2}.$"
This mysterious direct computation leaves me puzzled. The Fourier transform must be taken in the distributional sense, this is clear to me; I just can't figure out how to carry the actual computation.
I'm not necessarily after a fully-rigorous answer. Even a morally correct (so as to quote Willie Wong) but not rigorous answer is fine.