Unfortunately not, but (the way I know how) to demonstrate this is not entirely simple
Definition: A T$_1$-space $X$ is called collectionwise normal if for every discrete family $\{ F_i : i \in I \}$ of closed subsets of $X$ there is a pairwise disjoint family $\{ W_i : i \in I \}$ of open subsets of $X$ such that $F_i \subseteq W_i$ for all $i \in I$.
Theorem (H.J. Cohen, 1952): Every (completely regular) divisible space is collectionwise normal.
proof. Let $\{ F_i : i \in I \}$ be a discrete family of closed subsets of $X$. For each $i \in I$ let $U_i = X \setminus \bigcup_{j \neq i} F_j$, and let $U = \bigcup_{i \in I} ( U_i \times U_i )$. Clearly $U$ is an open neighbourhood of the diagonal $\triangle \subseteq X \times X$, and so by divisibility there is a symmetric neighbourhood $V$ of $\triangle$ such that $V \circ V \subseteq U$. For each $i \in I$ define $$W_i = \bigcup_{y \in F_i} \{ x \in X : \langle x , y \rangle \in V \}.$$ It can be shown that the family $\{ W_i : i \in I \}$ is as required. $\hspace{0.5cm}$$\Box$
(Perhaps for this reason divisible spaces are sometimes called strongly collectionwise normal.)
And there are normal spaces which are not collectionwise normal, for example Bing's $G$.
[Cohen's theorem is from his article Sur un problème de M. Dieudonné, C. R. Acad. Sci. Paris 234, (1952). 290–292.]