This is related to Are there statements that are undecidable but not provably undecidable and the links referred to there which addresses analagous questions, showing yes there are such statements.
This is an erroneous armchair argument to the contrary and I am wondering what is wrong with this line of reasoning. I have thought about it myself and asked others, but we aren't clear what's wrong. For a proposition P consider the statements
1) P can be proven.
2) P can be disproven.
3) Neither 1) or 2) can be proven.
Suppose 1), 2), and 3) cannot be proven. Then 3) is true.
Case 1: If we accept this as a proof of 3) we get a contradiction. So either 1), 2), or 3) can be proven.
Case 2: If we do not accept this as a proof of 3). Note 3) cannot be disproven or else 1) or 2) would be provable. So 3) must be undecidable. So 3) can be either true or false without contradiction since unprovability means independence. But this is absurd since if 3) were false 1) or 2) could be proven. So either 1), 2), or 3) was provable.