I thought about proving this proposition showing that $\mathbb{Q}$ isn't homeomorphic to any Baire spaces, but I'm not sure if this is enough (or even the correct path). Could someone help?
Asked
Active
Viewed 145 times
1
-
what does equivalent mean? – Tim kinsella Nov 26 '19 at 00:07
-
look at https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/15710/why-is-it-that-mathbbq-cannot-be-homeomorphic-to-any-complete-metric-spac – Chinnapparaj R Nov 26 '19 at 00:08
-
Your suggestion is fine. – Nov 26 '19 at 00:08
-
@Timkinsella https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equivalence_of_metrics I'm talking about the topological equivalence – russellsparadox Nov 26 '19 at 00:13
-
1@ChinnapparajR and Gae. S. thank you! – russellsparadox Nov 26 '19 at 00:15
1 Answers
2
That is enough. $\mathbb Q$ is a countable union of nowhere dense sets (namely singletons) so it cannot be complete under any equivalent metric.

Kavi Rama Murthy
- 311,013