I presume the norm $\ \|u(t)\| \ $ is intended to be $\ \sup_{v\in\overline{U}}\left|u(t)(v)\right|\ $. Unless the set $\ \overline{U}\ $ were suitably restricted this would not necessarily be finite. In what follows, I assume for concreteness that $\ \overline{U}\ $ is a compact subset of some Euclidean space, $\ \mathbb{R}^n\ $.
Strictly speaking, your suspicion that $\ C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))\ne$$C([0,T]\times \overline{U})\ $ is quite correct. The members of the first space are functions from $\ [0,T]\ $ to $\ C(\overline{U})\ $, while the members of the second are functions from $\ [0,T]\times \overline{U}\ $ to $\ \mathbb{R}\ $, which are completely different objects. However, there's a fairly obvious candidate, $\ \varphi:C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))\rightarrow C([0,T]\times \overline{U})\ $, for an isometric isomorphism between the two spaces, given by
$$
\varphi(v)\left(t,u\right)=v(t)(u)
$$
for $\ v\in C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))\ $, $\ t\in[0,T]\ $, and $\ u\in \overline{U}\ $. Therefore, since differently defined isomorphic mathematical objects are often thought of as being merely different representations of the same underlying structure, I expect the request to "[p]rove that $\ C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))=C([0,T]\times \overline{U})$" is using what is commonly called an "abuse of notation" to ask you to prove that the two spaces are isometrically isomorphic.
While I'm fairly sure that the mapping $\ \varphi\ $ I define above is indeed an isometric isomorphism, I must stress that I have not confirmed this belief by checking carefully that it satisfies all the conditions necessary for that to be the case. You will therefore need to do that for yourself