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I'm not talking about the truth values " true" / " false".

I'm talking about the symbols that are used in propositional calculs laws such as :

"False OR p is equivalent to p " ( where "p" stands for any sentence).

I think that " truth" and " falsity" are called " constants".

I've already read things such as " False is the proposition that is equivalent to all antilogies".

But that does not seem satisfying, for any antilogy is equivalent to all antilogy, so one cannot say , I believe, " the proposition that is equivalent to any antilogy".

By the way, how did these symbols come to be introduced? What is their " history"?

  • Regarding "false," it is merely notation used to represent some arbitrary statement that is an antilogy, or a contradiction, in the given logic system being used. It is necessary to have a specialized notation so that it is not confused with a statement variable, such as $P$ or $Q$, which represents a statement whose truth value may be true or false. The analogous is true regarding "true." – RyRy the Fly Guy Nov 19 '19 at 21:36
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    $\bot$ can be taken as a logical symbol / connective (same category as $\lnot$, $\lor$, etc only 0-ary). That’s probably the best way to think about it. Then the fact that it is “always false” will be reflected in the proof system and semantics. – spaceisdarkgreen Nov 19 '19 at 22:02
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    (What I say is more prescriptive than descriptive. Unfortunately many treatments define $\bot$ as some arbitrary invalid sentence whose form depends on the exact language. This is ultimately innocuous... once you decide precisely which sentence, you can just treat $\bot$ as an abbreviation for it and things are pretty much fine. But it’s annoying since it does add some ugliness (e.g. in quantifier elimination) with pretty negligible benefit since any extra cases a primitive $\bot$ would introduce are usually trivial.) – spaceisdarkgreen Nov 19 '19 at 22:23

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I'm not sure if there is anything like an 'official' status for $\bot$ and $\top$, but personally, my favorite way to think about them is to regard $\top$ as the generalised conjunction with $0$ conjuncts, and $\bot$ as the generalised disjunction with $0$ disjuncts.

Formally:

$$\top = \bigwedge \emptyset$$

A generalized conjunction of a bunch of statements is true iff all those statements are true. So, if you have no statements at all, then trivially 'all' of those statements are true.

This also makes it clear that $\top$ says nothing at all .... which is really what any tautology is like: if I say "my shirt is red, or it is not" ... then I effectively haven't told you anything at all. Put differently yet: tautologies have no information content.

I also likewise how in Existential Graphs, a tautology is literally represented by a bit of nothingness: it is any empty spot on the sheet of Assertion. Indeed, when the whole Sheet of Assertion is empty, i.e. you stare at an empty sheet of paper, then that to me is the perfect way to represent $\top$

On the other hand:

$$\bot = \bigvee \emptyset$$

A generalized disjunction of a set of statements is true iff at least one of the statements is true. Clearly that cannot be the case if you have no statements at all.

A contradiction is the opposite of a tautology. So, if a tautology in effect says nothing at all (it is a maximally weak statement) then a contradiction ends up saying everything: thus, contradiction says that pigs fly, and that they do not fly, and that my shirt is red, and that it is not red, etc. It is the maximally strong statement ... so strong, that it can't possibly be satisfied.

By the way, we can also nicely derive that the generalised conjunction with $0$ conjuncts has to be equivalent to $\top$, and the generalised disjunction with $0$ disjuncts the $\bot$. Here's how:

As a general principle for generalized conjunctions, we clearly want that for any sets of statements $\Gamma_1$ and $\Gamma_2$:

$$\bigwedge \Gamma_1 \land \bigwedge \Gamma_2 = \bigwedge \Gamma_1 \cup \Gamma_2$$

So, if we set $\Gamma_1 = \{ \top \}$ and $\Gamma_2 = \emptyset$, we get:

$$\bigwedge \{ \top \} \land \bigwedge \emptyset = \bigwedge \{ \top \} \cup \emptyset = \bigwedge \{ \top \}$$

And since:

$$\bigwedge \{ \top \} = \top$$

we thus get that:

$$\top \land \bigwedge \emptyset = \top$$

And that can only hold true if:

$$\bigwedge \emptyset = \top$$

We can do the same for generalized disjunctions:

We want:

$$\bigvee \Gamma_1 \lor \bigvee \Gamma_2 = \bigvee \Gamma_1 \cup \Gamma_2$$

So, if we set $\Gamma_1 = \{ \bot \}$ and $\Gamma_2 = \emptyset$, we get:

$$\bigvee \{ \bot \} \lor \bigvee \emptyset = \bigvee \{ \bot \} \cup \emptyset = \bigvee \{ \bot \}$$

And since:

$$\bigvee \{ \bot \} = \bot$$

we thus get that:

$$\bot \lor \bigvee \emptyset = \bot$$

And that can only hold true if:

$$\bigvee \emptyset = \bot$$

Bram28
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  • I presume you meant a blank sheet of paper was the "perfect way to represent T". Other than that, I really like this answer. I never thought of them this way. – No Name Nov 20 '19 at 04:34
  • @NoName Oh right, yes, of course, thanks! Glad you like the anser :) – Bram28 Nov 20 '19 at 12:43
  • A conjunction with no conjuncts being therefore vacuously true, that's a nice trick! –  Nov 20 '19 at 13:13
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    @EleonoreSaintJames Yes, frankly I like it much better than the linked answer which views the $\bot$ and $\top$ as their very own 'nullary' operators. The disadvantage I see with that compared to my view is that 1) with this method you introduce two more special operators, but with my method you stick to operators you already have, and 2) with this method there is no intuition behind the $\top$ being always true and the $\bot$ being always false, whereas with my method that become intuitively clear. And yes, in particular I like the connection between the $\top$ and 'nothingness'. – Bram28 Nov 20 '19 at 14:51
  • @Bram28 would another way of seeing the generalized conjunction be "its true when none of its arguments are false", and if there are no arguments, none can be false? – honestSalami Dec 24 '19 at 14:43
  • @Bram28, also, what do the $\bigwedge$ and $\bigvee$ mean? at first I thought they were regular 'and' and 'or', but now I don't know. – honestSalami Dec 24 '19 at 15:02
  • @Bram28 Oh! I guess they mean conjunction over a set and disjunction over a set – honestSalami Dec 24 '19 at 15:31
  • @honestSalami Yes: conjunction/ disjunction over a set. And yes, to say that 'all are True' is equivalent to saying 'none are false', in the same way that saying 'all of these natural numbers are even' is to say the same as 'none of these natural number are odd' – Bram28 Dec 24 '19 at 16:13