Note that
$$s_{n+1}-s_n =f(n+1)- \int_{n}^{n+1} f(x) dx \,.$$
Let $$a_n:= f(n+1)- \int_{n}^{n+1} f(x) dx = \int_n^{n+1} [f(n+1)-f(x)] dx \,.$$
Then your sequence is exactly the sequence of partial sums of the positive series
$$ \sum_n a_n \,.$$
When is this convergent? It is convergent if and only if $a_n \to 0$ "fast enough".
Basically your question asks: under what conditions does $\int_n^{n+1} [f(n+1)-f(x)] dx$ converge to zero fast enough so that the corresponding series is absolutely convergent?
Here is a simple condition, but it is probably completelly useless for practical applications: Let $c_n \in (n,n+1)$ be so that $\int_n^{n+1}f(x)dx =f(c_n)$. Then your sequence is convergent if and only if $\sum _n [ f(n+1)-f(c_n)]$ is convergent...
P.S. Probably a better question to ask is the following:
Define $g_n : [0,1] \rightarrow R$ by $g_n(x) = f(n+1)-f(n+1-x)$. Then $g_n$ is continuous on $[0,1]$, increasing and $g_n(0)=0$. Keep in mind that any such $g_n$ lead to an unique $f$ which verifies your conditions.
Then, the question you ask becomes equivalent to the following:
Let $g_n : [0,1] \rightarrow R$ be continuous, increasing and $g_n(0)=0$. Under what extra conditions is
$$\sum_n \left( \int_0^1 g_n(x) dx \right) $$
convergent?