I'm studying about the field of Galois (Finite Fields) and I'm going through a proof that tries to show that if a finite set $F_p$ is a field, then $p$ must be a prime.
*note: I cannot link the materials since they're in foreign language
I don't understand the last reasoning of the proof, so I will write all of it out.
Let's assume $p$ is not a prime i.e. $p = qs$. Since we assumed that $F_p$ is a field, than each element different from $0$ has a multiplicative inverse, i.e. $ql=1(mod p)$. From here, we can deduce that $p$ is divisor of $ql-1$. From here, we can deduce that $q$ also has to be divisor of $ql-1$.
I understand everything until the following point:
"The last statement is possible only if $q=1$." This means that $p$ must be a prime.
Why is it that if $q|ql-1$, then $q=1$?