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I have just learned something about universal Generalization in discrete math, and want to know how to prove it. It is enter image description here

hongxi chen
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    We will need to know how your proof system works in order to answer this. For example, what is the convention as far as using this $c$ goes? Because if $c$ is used as an individual constant, i.e. denoting a specific object, then clearly this is not a valid inference. So, $c$ must be used to represent some arbitrary object ... and the rules will need to be defined in order to reflect this usage. But how, exactly? So, please add the relevant rules (in particular: Universal Generalization) to your post, because different systems can define Universal Generalization slightly differently. – Bram28 Oct 30 '19 at 15:00
  • It is a rule of ineference. In some system of predicate logic with Modus Ponens as only rule of inference, it can be proved from suitable axioms. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Oct 30 '19 at 15:01
  • yeah, you are right, c represents some arbitrary object – hongxi chen Oct 30 '19 at 16:44

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