This is a followup to my existing question: Question on Heaviside step function (distribution) identities
I was trying to show the equality between two Heaviside step functions using their derivatives.
The old question was:
For $c>0$, and in the sense of distributions:
First:
$$\frac {d}{dt} \theta (ct-z)=c\delta(ct-z)=\frac{1}{c} c\delta(t-\frac{z}{c})=\delta(t-\frac{z}{c})\tag{1}$$
Second:
$$\frac {d}{dt} \theta (t-\frac{z}{c})=\delta(t-\frac{z}{c})\tag{2}$$
So then
$$\theta (ct-z)=\theta (t-\frac{z}{c})\tag{3}$$
to within a constant of integration.
My question was: is that true?
The answer I got was YES.
MY QUESTION NOW IS: Does that mean that $\theta(f(x))$ is identical to $\theta(g(x))$ for any two functions as long as they have identical zeros? (Assuming the signs of their derivatives are the same at the zeros)