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Is it true that if E is measurable set and $f :E \to \Bbb R$ is continuous, $B \subseteq \Bbb R$ a measurable set, then $f^{-1}(B)$ is measurable set?

My guess: this is true.

Approach: Consider $\{A| f^{-1}(A) \text{is measurable}\}$ is a $\sigma$-algebra containing all open intervals.

Hence this is Borel sigma-algebra so $f^{-1}(B)$ is a Borel set and hence measurable.

As I got in the comment that the answer is not correct so please help me answering this question.

Ri-Li
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