Edit: How frustrating, this is still not correct. It is not hard to make this proof work by generalizing to the functions holomorphic on unit disc and continuous on its closure, but such approach will be nothing else than proving the theorem cited by Jonas Meyer (see his answer).
Second attempt:
Note that $f$ has finitely many zeros in $\mathbb{D}$ (identity principle + compactness).
Observe that if $F\in \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{D})\cap \mathcal{C}(\bar{\mathbb{D}}),$ the only zero of $F$ is in zero, and $|F|$ is constant on unit circle, then $F(z) = e^{it}z^{k}$ where $k = ord_{0}F$.
(apply the maximum principle for $F(z)/z^{k}$ and $z^{k}/F(z)$)
Let $z_{1},\ldots, z_{n}$ be all pairwise distinct zeros of $f$ in $\mathbb{D}$. By induction on $n$ we will show that $n = 1$ and $z_{1} = 0$.
Let $n = 1$.
We are taking $h \in Aut(\mathbb{D})$ s.t. $h(0) = z_{1}$ and $g:= f\circ h\in \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{D})\cap \mathcal{C}(\bar{\mathbb{D}})$.
Then $|g|$ is constant on unit circle, $0$ is the only zero of $g$ in $\mathbb{D}$. So $g(z) = e^{it}z^{k}$.
Therefore $f(z) = e^{it}\cdot \left(\frac{z - z_{1}}{1 - \bar{z_{1}}z}\right)^{k}$ in $\mathbb{D}$.
From identity principle for meromorphic functions this equality holds in $\mathbb{C}$, and gives contradiction unless $z_{1} = 0$ (otherwise $f$ is not entire).
If $n > 1$, then we're reasoning by contradiction.
W.l.o.g. $z_{n}\neq 0$.
We are taking $h \in Aut(\mathbb{D})$ s.t. $h(0) = z_{n}$ and $g:= f\circ h\in \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{D})\cap \mathcal{C}(\bar{\mathbb{D}})$, and then $h^{-1}(z_{1}),\ldots, h^{-1}(z_{n-1}), 0$ are the all zeros of $g$ in $\mathbb{D}$.
Let $k = ord_{0}g$, and $G(z) = g(z)/z^{k}\in \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{D})\cap \mathcal{C}(\bar{\mathbb{D}})$.
$G$ has $n-1$ zeros on $\mathbb{D}$, $|G(z)| = 1$ on unit circle, thus from inductive assumption $n-1 = 1$ or $G$ is constant (we cannot use inductive assumption since in general $G\not\in \mathcal{O}(\mathbb{C})$!).
If $G$ is non-constant then $n-1 = 1$ and $G(z) = e^{it}z^{l}, \ l > 0$ - a contradiction with $ord_{0}g = k$. Otherwise $n - 1 = 0$ - a contradiction.
Finally 1. and 3. proves that all entire functions with desired property are of the form $f(z) = e^{it}z^{k}$.
The following reasoning is not correct (see the Malik Younsi's answer):
This should be the comment to the Leandro's answer, although I cannot add comments yet.
W.l.o.g. $f$ is non-constant. Then by maximum modulus $f$ has zero inside $\mathbb{D}$.
Denote this zero by $a$.
Composing $f$ with an automorphism $h$ of disc s.t. $h(0) = a$ we obtain that $g = f\circ h$ satisfies $g(0)= 0$ and moreover $|g(z)|\le |z|^{k}$ inside $\mathbb{D}$, where $k$ is the order of zero of $g$ in $0$ (indeed $g(z)/z^{k}$ is entire and we may use the maximum modulus principle).
By Schwarz lemma there exists $\theta\in \mathbb{R}$ satisfying $g(z) = e^{i\theta}z^{k}$.
From classification of automorphisms of the disc, we have $h^{-1}(z) = e^{i\omega}\frac{z-a}{1-\bar{a}z}$ for some $\omega\in \mathbb{R}$, and from this the full classification easily follows.