Prove by contradiction. Suppose that $f$ is injective. Let $g:[0,2\pi]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^{2}$
be defined by $g(x)=(\cos x,\sin x)$. Note that $g$ is continuous.
Moreover, $g\mid_{[0,2\pi)}$ is injective. Therefore, $\theta:=f\circ g$
is continuous and $\theta_{[0,2\pi)}$ is injective. Denote $a=\theta(0)$
and $b=\theta(\pi)$. Note that $a\neq b$. Without loss of generality,
assume that $a<b$. Let $c=\frac{1}{2}(a+b)$. Since $g(x)\rightarrow g(0)$
as $x\rightarrow2\pi^{-}$ and $f$ is continuous, we have $\theta(x)\rightarrow a<c$
as $x\rightarrow2\pi^{-}$. Hence, there exists $x_{0}\in[0,2\pi)$,
sufficiently close to $2\pi$, such that $\theta(x_{0})<c$.
Observe that $\theta(0)<c<\theta(\pi)$ and $\theta(\pi)>c>\theta(x_{0})$
By intermediate value theorem, there exist $x_{1}\in(0,\pi)$ and
$x_{2}\in(\pi,x_{0})$ such that $\theta(x_{1})=c$ and $\theta(x_{2})=c$.
However, this contradicts to the fact that $\theta\mid_{[0,2\pi)}$
is injective.