I've been stuck forever with this old exam question:
Is there a holomorphic function $f : \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ with $f(n) = f(-n) = \frac1{n^2}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$?
The next question asks whether there is an entire function with $f(n) = f(-n) = \frac1{n^3}$, so I guess there is some difference.
What I did so far:
Trying to find a holomorphic function that meets the conditions. I came up with $f(z) = \frac{\sin^2(2\pi z)}{z^2}$, which is holomorphic but doesn't quite work. $f(z) = \frac{\sin^2(2\pi z + \frac{\pi}2)}{z^2}$ matches the points, but isn't holomorphic.
I read this related question, which uses the identity theorem. However, I don't see a way to use the identity theorem: the given points don't even have a limit point in $\mathbb{C}$.
As an alternative view on the problem, I tried to check if there is a harmonic function $u : \mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ matching the points, which could be extended to a holomorphic function.