This post is about my extended thought after I did the (depending on the editions) Exercise 2.2.10 or Exercise 2.2.13 of Durrett.
The exercise itself states as follow:
Let $\{X_{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$, $\{Y_{n}\}_{n=1}^{\infty}$, $X$ be random variables on $(\Omega,\mathcal{F})$ and $c\in\mathbb{R}$ be such that $X_{n}\Rightarrow X$ and $Y_{n}\Rightarrow c$.
Show that Deduce that $X_{n}+Y_{n}\Rightarrow X+c$.
Then, he commented that
If $X_{n}\Rightarrow Z$ and $Z_{n}-X_{n}\Rightarrow 0$, then $Z_{n}\Rightarrow Z.$
I proved this exercise and convinced myself of this comment, since if $X_{n}\Rightarrow Z$, and $Z_{n}-X_{n}\Rightarrow 0$. Then by the exercise, it follows immediately that $$Z_{n}=X_{n}+(Z_{n}-X_{n})\Rightarrow Z+0=Z.$$
However, I am thinking about if this is sufficient and necessary, i.e.
If $Z_{n}-X_{n}\Rightarrow 0$, then $Z_{n}\Rightarrow Z$ if and only if $X_{n}\Rightarrow Z.$
The comment in Durret is about $(\Leftarrow)$, but I don't know how to show the converse.
If we want to use the same techniques, we will have $$Z_{n}+(Z_{n}-X_{n})\Rightarrow Z,$$ but not the RHS cannot give us $X_{n}$.
Therefore, I think this breaks down the question to whether $Z_{n}-X_{n}\Rightarrow 0$ implying $X_{n}-Z_{n}\Rightarrow 0$ is true.
I tried to show it but I failed.
Any idea?
By the way, $(\Rightarrow)$ is weak convergence.