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I am integrating

$$\pi\int\left(\cfrac{1}{x^2+4}\right)^2dx$$

I understand I need to integrate by parts. But why is it that $$u=\cfrac{1}{x^2+4}$$ and not $$u=\left(\cfrac{1}{x^2+4}\right)^2$$

How to account for the exponent of 2?

Jinzu
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    Are you open to solutions that use a substitution instead? With $x=2\tan t$, the integral is $\int\frac{\pi}{8}\cos^2tdt=\frac{\pi}{16}\left(\arctan\frac{x}{2}+\frac{2x}{x^2+4}\right)+C$. – J.G. Oct 04 '19 at 20:40
  • I don't think integration by parts will work well here. You'll get an integral that involves an arctan as well as a rational function. – Robert Israel Oct 04 '19 at 20:44
  • Maybe of interest: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/689932/1242 – Hans Lundmark Oct 05 '19 at 08:19

4 Answers4

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I think that you misunderstood the solution.

Starting from $\int \frac{1}{x^2+4} dx$ and integrating by parts you get $$\int \frac{1}{x^2+4} dx =\frac{x}{x^2+4} +\int \frac{2x^2}{(x^2+4)^2} dx\\ \int \frac{1}{x^2+4} dx=\frac{x}{x^2+4} +\int \frac{2x^2+8}{(x^2+4)^2} -8\int \frac{1}{(x^2+4)^2} dx\\ 8\int \frac{1}{(x^2+4)^2} dx=\frac{x}{x^2+4} +\int \frac{1}{x^2+4} dx\\ $$

This is a pretty standard technique to get a recurrence relation for $\int\frac{1}{(x^2+4)^n} dx$.

N. S.
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You may like this method. Since

$$ \int\frac{1}{x^2+a^2}dx=\frac{1}{a}\arctan(\frac xa)+C, $$

then differentiating the above gives $$ \int\frac{-2a}{(x^2+a^2)^2}dx=-\frac{1}{a^2}\bigg[\arctan(\frac xa)+\frac{ax}{x^2+a^2}\bigg], $$ and hence $$ \int\frac{1}{(x^2+a^2)^2}dx=\frac{1}{2a^3}\bigg[\arctan(\frac xa)+\frac{ax}{x^2+a^2}\bigg]+C. $$

Then set $a=2$.

amWhy
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xpaul
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You account for the exponent by setting $v'=\frac1{x^2+4}$. This makes $\int u\cdot v'\,dx$ into your integral, and you can use integration by parts to advance.

As for why it is that $u=\frac1{x^2+4}$ and not something else, there is no formal, rigorous reason. Presumably, that choice just happens to give you an integral you can actually solve. (I haven't actually sat down and checked for myself whether that is indeed the way to go.) That's the way it usually is with integration: It can be difficult to pin down exactly what works and why, is mostly a matter of trial and error, perseverance and experience.

Arthur
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I would avoid integration by parts and instead try substitution. $$\pi\int\left(\cfrac{1}{x^2+4}\right)^2dx$$

$$x=2\tan t$$ will change your integral to $$\pi \int \frac {2\sec ^2 t dt }{16 \sec ^4 t }= (\pi/8) \int\cos ^2t dt$$