I'm not sure if this is a straightforward "intuitive reason" like you're hoping for, but it is a very different solution to this problem that is recursion-free and (I think) quite fun. Let's think of this problem like the Gambler's Ruin.
A bettor walks into the casino with 0 dollars. She makes \$1 wagers on coin flips; she wins \$1 on heads, and she loses \$1 on tails. She intends to make bets until she reaches a bankroll of \$$m$ (at which point she'll have seen $m$ more heads than tails). This is a very generous casino, so she is allowed to assume a very small amount of debt; she can borrow a maximum of \$$n$ from the casino (at which point she'll have seen $n$ more tails than heads). She will play until one of those conditions are met.
Let $M_t$ denote her bankroll after $t$ flips, and let $T$ be the number of flips required before she leaves. Note that $M_T$ is necessarily either $m$ or $-n$, but which one of those it is depends on the outcomes of the coin flips. Call $\mathbb P(M_T = m)$ by the name $p$. Since $M_t$ is the result of fair bets, it is a martingale. One can verify that the conditions of the Optional Stopping Theorem apply to $M_t$ and $T$, whence $\mathbb E[M_T] = \mathbb E[M_0] = 0$; that is, her expected bankroll when she leaves is the same as when she entered, because every bet was fair (and some technical conditions are satisfied). However,
$$\mathbb E[M_T] = m \cdot p - n \cdot \mathbb (1-p)$$
so setting this equal to $0$ and solving for $p$ gives $p = \frac{n}{m+n}$. The intuition behind $p$ should somewhat clear; the starting point ($0$) is $n$ steps along the path of length $m+n$ from $-n$ to $m$.
It's worth pausing to point out that it's perhaps not at all clear why this is useful in answering the question you asked. Here's the magic: we'll observe a second martingale, $M'_t = M_t^2 - t$. You can easily see why this is a martingale; if $M_t = x$, then $M_t' = x^2 - t$, and $M_{t+1}'$ will be either $(x+1)^2-(t+1)$ or $(x-1)^2 - (t+1)$ with equal probability; you can verify that their average is $M_t'$.
Since $M_n'$ is a martingale, we can use the Optional Stopping Theorem up above again; note that $M_0' = 0$, whence $\mathbb E[M_T'] = 0$ as well. However,
$$\mathbb E[M_T'] = \mathbb E[M_T^2] - \mathbb E[T] = m^2 p + n^2(1-p) - \mathbb E[T] = 0$$
and since we saw above that $p = \frac{n}{m + n}$, solving for $\mathbb E[T]$ gives the advertised $mn$.
I'm not sure if this will scratch your itch for a heuristic argument for the reasonableness of $mn$, but I like this method a lot and thought the algebra in the punch line may be illuminating.