The sequence looks Cauchy. But I do not know how to approach the proof.
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1Basically, you have written $1 \leq \dfrac{1}{2}$, which is wrong! – Aniruddha Deshmukh Sep 20 '19 at 10:13
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Nothing to prove! – Kavi Rama Murthy Sep 20 '19 at 10:13
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$(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ are convergent sequences. Therefore, $(x_n)$ is convergent. QED – Ennar Sep 20 '19 at 10:14
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I am sorry. I mistyped the question – onlinefakir Sep 20 '19 at 10:16
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Then for each $p \in \mathbb N*$, what could you say about $\vert x_{n+p} - x_n\vert$ ? – xbh Sep 20 '19 at 10:18
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Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2070528/42969 – Martin R Sep 20 '19 at 10:25